زائر مهتم بتطوير مستقبله المهني
📘 حلول امتحانات دبلوم IFRS النظرية
Winter 2019 – Winter 2025 (النسخة الكاملة)
📅 Winter 2019
You have recently joined the board of Marwan, a fast-growing company likely to seek a stock exchange listing within the next few years, while continuing to serve on the board of Ekramy, an already-listed entity with a 30 September 20X7 year end. While reviewing Marwan's IFRS-compliant financial statements as part of your induction, two things stood out that don't match what you're used to seeing at Ekramy:
- Marwan discloses neither an earnings per share figure nor any segmental breakdown, despite operating several distinct divisions. Ekramy provides both.
- Where Ekramy deducts government grants received toward a non-current asset from that asset's cost, Marwan instead sets the grant up as deferred income.
Since both companies claim IFRS compliance, how can their financial statements differ this much?
Compliance with IFRS Standards does not guarantee identical presentation across different entities, because several Standards either apply only to particular categories of entity or permit a genuine choice between acceptable methods.
Both IFRS 8 (Operating Segments) and IAS 33 (Earnings per Share) apply exclusively to listed entities. Since Marwan is not yet listed, neither disclosure is compulsory for it — though nothing stops Marwan from providing them voluntarily. Once Marwan secures its own listing, both disclosures become mandatory.
As for the government grant, IAS 20 (Accounting for Government Grants and Disclosure of Government Assistance) does require grants to be recognised in profit or loss systematically, matching the related costs — but it explicitly permits two different presentation approaches. Ekramy's method nets the grant against the non-current asset's cost, reducing future depreciation charges. Marwan's method instead recognises a deferred income balance, released to profit or loss over time. Both approaches produce an identical net effect on profit or loss; only the presentation differs. Each entity simply needs to apply its chosen method consistently.
Two customers, referred to as Customer A and Customer B, are each pursuing legal claims against Ekramy, alleging that products supplied to them in the final quarter of the financial year were defective. Should Customer A's claim succeed, management estimates the payout at $10 million; should Customer B's claim succeed, the figure is put at $8 million. Ekramy's legal advisers assess the likelihood of success at 60% for Customer A and 25% for Customer B. Ekramy also holds insurance that would very likely cover any successful claim.
Given this, I would have expected the accounts to show both a provision for the potential damages and a matching insurance recovery asset. Instead, the financial statements include only a $10 million provision, with both legal disputes and the insurance position described solely in the notes. How can recognising the liability without a corresponding asset possibly be correct?
IAS 37 (Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets) governs this area. Recognising a provision first requires a past obligating event, and since both customers received the allegedly faulty goods before the year end, that condition is met for both claims.
The next test is whether an outflow of economic benefit is probable, which IAS 37 defines as a likelihood exceeding 50%. Only Customer A's claim clears this threshold (60%), so a provision is appropriate for Customer A alone. Customer B's 25% likelihood falls below the bar, making that claim a contingent liability instead — disclosed in the notes rather than provided for.
The provision for Customer A is measured at the best estimate of the expected outflow, here the full $10 million.
As for the potential insurance recovery, IAS 37 treats this as a contingent asset. Contingent assets are never recognised in the statement of financial position unless the inflow is virtually certain — a materially higher bar than merely highly probable. So even though recovery from the insurer is highly probable, it remains disclosure-only rather than a recognised receivable. This is precisely why the accounts show a liability without a mirrored asset: the two items are tested against different recognition thresholds, and only the liability clears its bar.
Looking through our statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income, I notice it splits into two distinct sections — one labelled 'profit or loss' and the other 'other comprehensive income' — and that the income tax charge only appears within the first section, with nothing corresponding in the second. This raises three questions:
- What determines whether a given item of income or expense belongs in one section rather than the other?
- Where is the tax attributable to other comprehensive income actually shown?
- Does any of this affect how the performance measures our shareholders care about are calculated?
The overall presentation framework for the financial statements comes from IAS 1 (Presentation of Financial Statements), which requires every item of income and expense to appear somewhere within the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income — there is no third option.
Entities do not choose freely between the two sections. Unless a specific IFRS Standard requires or permits otherwise, IAS 1's default position is that income and expense items belong in the profit-or-loss section.
Regarding tax on other-comprehensive-income items: IAS 1 allows this to be presented either as its own separate line within the other comprehensive income section, or netted directly against each individual OCI component, with the detail disclosed in the notes instead.
The practical consequence that matters most to shareholders is this: anything routed through other comprehensive income, rather than profit or loss, is excluded from the calculation of earnings per share — a headline performance measure that listed entities like Ekramy are required to report.
📅 Summer 2020
Ayman is a listed entity, and as its financial controller you are finalising the financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X5. A director has raised three questions after noticing a new line within the property, plant and equipment note, described as a right-of-use asset. This relates to a warehouse Ayman began leasing on 1 October 20X4 to expand storage capacity. The lease runs for a fixed five-year term with no renewal option, at an annual rent of $500,000 payable at the end of each year; discounted at the current market rate of 10%, these payments have a present value of $1,895,000. Ayman also incurred $105,000 of costs directly attributable to arranging the lease. The right-of-use asset is currently shown at a carrying amount of $1.8 million.
- Given that buying the warehouse outright would cost at least $10 million and it has a 25-year useful life, how can it possibly appear as Ayman's own asset?
- Where does the $1.8 million figure actually come from?
- Beyond the right-of-use asset itself, what other effects does this transaction have on the financial statements (no detailed workings needed, just the explanation)?
Under IFRS 16 (Leases), a lessee is required to recognise a right-of-use asset for essentially every lease, with only two narrow exceptions: leases of twelve months or less, and leases of low-value assets. A five-year warehouse lease qualifies for neither exception, so recognising a non-current asset here is correct regardless of who legally owns the underlying property.
The asset's initial carrying amount combines two components: the present value of the future lease payments, plus any directly attributable set-up costs. Adding these together — $1,895,000 plus $105,000 — gives an initial carrying amount of $2,000,000 as at 1 October 20X4.
This amount sits within property, plant and equipment as its own separate component and is depreciated over the lease term. For the six months from 1 October 20X4 to the 31 March 20X5 year end, depreciation comes to $200,000 ($2,000,000 ÷ 5 years × 6/12), leaving a closing carrying amount of $1,800,000 ($2,000,000 less $200,000) — matching the figure the director queried.
Recognising the right-of-use asset also brings a matching lease liability onto the statement of financial position, initially measured at the same $1,895,000 present value. Over time, this liability accretes a finance charge, calculated on the outstanding balance at the rate implicit in the lease, which is expensed through profit or loss, while each rental payment reduces the liability. Because the next rental payment falls due six months after the year end, $500,000 of the liability is classified as current, with the remainder shown as non-current.
As a listed entity, we're required to disclose the financial performance and position of our different business segments in the notes to our accounts. Out of curiosity, I compared our segment report against a close competitor's, and found the two set up completely differently: ours is organised around geographical regions, theirs around product lines. If both of us prepare our financial statements under IFRS Standards, shouldn't there be one consistent definition of a 'segment' applying equally to both businesses?
IFRS 8 (Operating Segments) requires entities within its scope to report based on their own operating segments — not on a single, universally fixed notion of a 'segment' applied identically everywhere.
An operating segment is defined by reference to how the business is actually run: a component of the entity for which discrete financial information exists, and whose results are regularly reviewed by the chief operating decision maker (the individual, or group, responsible for assessing performance and allocating resources). Ayman evidently manages and reports internally along geographical lines, while the competitor most likely does so along product lines — IFRS 8 simply follows whichever internal structure genuinely drives each entity's own decision-making.
That said, IFRS 8 does impose some baseline disclosures regardless of segment structure — typically revenue analysed by geographical area and by product or service type, along with non-current assets by geographical area — unless obtaining that information would come at a prohibitive cost. That carve-out may well account for at least part of the difference you're seeing.
I understand our Head Office cleaning contract went to a firm controlled by my brother. The contract went through the normal approval process, and I deliberately stayed out of that process given how well known it is that my brother and I holiday and socialise together. Commercially, the terms are standard, and the amounts involved are trivial relative to Ayman as a whole. I'm genuinely puzzled, then, that this small contract receives specific disclosure in our financial statements when far larger, more financially significant contracts don't get the same level of detail. Surely disclosure isn't warranted here, given how small the amounts are and how unremarkable the contract terms are?
Under IAS 24 (Related Party Disclosures), your brother's firm qualifies as a related party of Ayman, because it is controlled by a close family member (your brother) of one of Ayman's key management personnel (you).
IAS 24 requires disclosure of every related party relationship, together with details of any transactions and outstanding balances between them (the exact wording is not what matters here). Critically, IAS 24 treats related party relationships as inherently material, regardless of the monetary amounts involved or how ordinary the transaction terms may be — so neither the contract's small size nor its unremarkable terms exempts it from disclosure.
📅 Winter 2020
You are the financial controller of Ayman, a listed entity engaged in mineral exploration and evaluation. Following his review of the consolidated financial statements for the year ended 30 September 20X5, one of Ayman's directors raised three points after comparing our note on exploration and evaluation assets against a competitor's equivalent disclosure.
First, although both companies operate in broadly similar ways, the two notes break the exploration and evaluation assets figure down into entirely different categories. How can this be right if both companies prepare their accounts under IFRS Standards?
Second, neither company's exploration and evaluation assets figure includes the cost of actually developing the mineral resources found. Given how central these development costs are to both businesses, shouldn't they be included?
Third, our financial statements state that exploration and evaluation assets are measured under the cost model, while the competitor uses the revaluation model. Is this inconsistency acceptable when both companies claim to follow IFRS Standards?
IFRS 6 (Exploration for and Evaluation of Mineral Resources) governs this area.
On your first point: IFRS 6 deliberately does not prescribe which specific expenditures should be classified as exploration and evaluation assets. Instead, each entity develops its own accounting policy, applied consistently, based on the degree to which particular expenditure can be linked to finding the specific mineral resources being sought. Given how entity-specific this judgement can be, it is entirely possible for two companies in similar sectors to reach different conclusions and therefore present different category breakdowns.
On your second point: IFRS 6 specifically excludes the cost of developing mineral resources from the exploration and evaluation assets figure. Once a resource moves from exploration and evaluation into development, those costs instead fall under IAS 38 (Intangible Assets).
On your third point: yes, this is acceptable. IFRS 6 allows entities to measure exploration and evaluation assets under either the cost model or the revaluation model — both are equally valid choices under the Standard.
Two notes to our financial statements appear to contradict each other, and I'd like your explanation.
The first note concerns a legal case dating back to December 20X4, in which a customer sued us for damages. We had originally expected to pay around $5 million, but the matter was finally settled on 20 October 20X5 for $5.5 million. Despite this settlement only being confirmed after our 30 September 20X5 year end, our financial statements at that date already show a liability of $5.5 million.
The second note concerns a serious fire at one of our factories on 15 October 20X5, with damage estimated at $5.75 million. Yet this note states that no adjustment has been made to the 30 September 20X5 financial statements for the fire — even though it will have a significant, if temporary, effect on our cash flow, without threatening our going concern status.
Given the similar dollar amounts involved, why are these two events being treated so differently?
Separately, I understand a major customer who owed us a substantial amount became insolvent on 20 November 20X5, and we expect to recover little if any of that debt. Why isn't there at least a note telling our shareholders about this?
For reference, our financial statements were authorised for issue on 15 November 20X5.
The accounting treatment for events occurring after the year end is set out in IAS 10 (Events after the Reporting Period), which defines the relevant window as running from the reporting date up to the date the financial statements are authorised for issue — in this case, 15 November 20X5.
IAS 10 splits such events into two categories: adjusting and non-adjusting. Adjusting events provide additional evidence about conditions that already existed at the year end. The legal case falls into this category — the dispute existed at 30 September 20X5, and the October settlement simply provides more precise evidence of the amount owed — so it is correct to recognise the confirmed $5.5 million liability in the year-end financial statements.
The factory fire, by contrast, relates to a new event arising after the year end, with no connection to conditions existing at 30 September 20X5, making it non-adjusting. IAS 10 requires non-adjusting events to be disclosed in the notes rather than adjusted for in the figures themselves, which is exactly what has been done here. The only circumstance that would change this treatment is if the event threatened the entity's going concern status, which is not the case here.
As for the customer's insolvency: since it occurred on 20 November 20X5, after the 15 November 20X5 authorisation date, it falls entirely outside the reporting window defined by IAS 10, and therefore requires no disclosure at all in the financial statements for the year ended 30 September 20X5.
We acquired a new subsidiary, Ekramy, on 1 October 20X4. Ekramy has a 30 September year end and, until now, has prepared its own financial statements under national accounting standards rather than IFRS Standards. Now that Ekramy is part of the Ayman group, we naturally need it to move onto IFRS Standards, and we have already incorporated its results into our consolidated IFRS financial statements. But Ekramy's own financial controller needs guidance on Ekramy's standalone accounts: they have IFRS-compliant figures ready for the year ended 30 September 20X5, but what should be used as the comparative figures? Can they simply reuse the national-standards accounts for the year ended 30 September 20X4 as the comparative period? Please advise me on what to tell Ekramy's financial controller.
The rules governing an entity's first-time move to IFRS Standards sit in IFRS 1 (First-time Adoption of International Financial Reporting Standards). IFRS 1 requires both the current period and the comparative figures to be presented under the IFRS Standards in force at the entity's first IFRS reporting date — here, 30 September 20X5. This rules out simply reusing last year's national-standards figures as-is.
The starting point is an opening IFRS statement of financial position, prepared as at the beginning of the earliest comparative period presented in Ekramy's first full IFRS financial statements. For Ekramy, that date is 1 October 20X3.
Unless there is objective evidence they were wrong, the accounting estimates carried into this opening IFRS statement of financial position should be consistent with those Ekramy originally used under its national standards.
Because this opening position must be published alongside the first IFRS financial statements, Ekramy's 30 September 20X5 accounts will actually contain three statements of financial position rather than the usual two — though still only two statements of profit or loss and other comprehensive income, and two statements of changes in equity.
Any difference between net assets at 1 October 20X3 measured under national standards versus IFRS Standards is recognised through the statement of changes in equity for the comparative period, not through profit or loss.
Finally, Ekramy's first IFRS financial statements must include reconciliations of equity, previously reported under national standards, to the equivalent IFRS-based figures at every date previously reported — for Ekramy, this means reconciliations at both 1 October 20X3 and 30 September 20X4.
📅 Summer 2021
You are the financial controller of Ekramy, a listed entity with several subsidiaries, currently preparing consolidated financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X5. One of Ekramy's directors has raised questions after reviewing the draft consolidated accounts.
During the year, we acquired a small construction company — also, somewhat confusingly, referred to internally as our new subsidiary. Its shares had previously been split equally between three family members, and its only borrowing was a single bank loan. Having looked at this subsidiary's own audited financial statements, the audit report raised no concerns, yet something seems off to me: the subsidiary operates in the same country as us, under the same regulatory regime, but its financial statements don't appear to fully comply with International Financial Reporting Standards. For instance, the notes state that all borrowing costs are expensed as incurred, even though some of that borrowing funded the construction of a new factory. The notes also seem to be missing disclosures that full IFRS Standards would normally require.
Two questions (I already understand the mechanics of consolidation, so no need to cover that):
- Why would this subsidiary have been allowed to prepare individual financial statements that don't fully comply with full IFRS Standards?
- Now that it's part of our group, will it need to switch to full IFRS Standards in its own financial statements?
Because this subsidiary was previously owned by three private shareholders and does not operate in banking or finance, it qualifies as an entity without public accountability. Entities in this position are permitted — though not required — to report under the simplified framework set out in the IFRS for Small and Medium-sized Entities (IFRS SME).
The IFRS SME restricts recognition of certain assets and liabilities compared with full IFRS (for example, borrowing costs are always expensed immediately, never capitalised, under the IFRS SME), and its disclosure requirements are considerably lighter than those of full IFRS Standards.
Even now that it belongs to a group reporting under full IFRS at the consolidated level, the subsidiary itself can continue applying the IFRS SME in its own individual financial statements. The necessary adjustments to bring its figures into full IFRS compliance are simply made at the point of consolidation.
During the year we made a strategic, long-term investment in Mrehan, a company that plays a vital role in our supply chain. As I understand it, we purchased 40% of its shares (each carrying one vote), which entitled us to appoint four of Mrehan's ten board seats; the remaining six directors are independent of one another and do not always vote the same way. I expected Mrehan to appear as a subsidiary in our consolidated accounts, but instead the whole investment shows as a single line in our consolidated statement of financial position, carried at $40 million. Based on the current share price, I calculate the fair value of this stake at $42 million — and I understood that equity investments outside consolidation had to be measured at fair value. Please explain:
- Why Mrehan isn't being treated as a subsidiary in our consolidated accounts.
- What method produced the $40 million carrying amount, rather than measuring the investment at its $42 million fair value.
Under IFRS 10 (Consolidated Financial Statements), Mrehan would only be a subsidiary if we were able to control its operating and financial policies. Although substantial and long-term, this investment does not give us that level of control, so consolidating Mrehan would not be appropriate.
Under IAS 28 (Investments in Associates and Joint Ventures), a shareholding above 20% — our 40% comfortably clears this — creates a rebuttable presumption of significant influence over the investee's operating and financial policies. Given that we can appoint four of Mrehan's ten directors, and nothing suggests the other shareholders or directors are acting together to block our influence, this presumption holds here. Mrehan is therefore properly classified as an associate.
IAS 28 requires associates to be measured using the equity method: the investment is initially recorded at cost, then adjusted each period for our 40% share of Mrehan's post-acquisition change in net assets. This equity-accounted figure is not designed to track fair value, which is why the $40 million carrying amount can legitimately differ from the $42 million market-based fair value.
Our draft financial statements show that we've switched to measuring our raw materials inventory using the weighted average cost formula this period, having previously used first-in-first-out for all inventory categories. A few questions on this:
- Are we actually permitted to change our measurement method like this?
- If we change it for raw materials, shouldn't the same method apply to all our inventory?
- How do we keep this year's figures comparable with last year's, given raw materials are now measured differently?
Switching raw materials from first-in-first-out to weighted average cost is a change in accounting policy, since it alters the underlying principle used to measure those assets. Under IAS 8 (Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors), such a change is only appropriate where the new policy results in financial statements that are more reliable and more relevant to the effects of transactions, other events, or conditions on the entity's financial position, performance, or cash flows.
Under IAS 2 (Inventories), the choice of measurement formula is made by category of inventory with a similar nature and use to the entity — not necessarily uniformly across all inventory. Raw materials can reasonably be regarded as having a different nature and use from other inventory categories, so applying weighted average cost to raw materials while retaining first-in-first-out elsewhere is, in principle, acceptable.
Comparability is preserved by restating the prior year's comparative figures as though the new policy had always been applied. Any resulting difference between previously reported opening and closing equity and the equivalent figures under the new policy is presented as an adjustment to opening equity for both the current and prior period, shown within the statement of changes in equity (and its comparative) — it does not flow through profit or loss.
📅 Winter 2021
You are the financial controller of Ayman, a listed entity with several subsidiaries. Your managing director recently attended a seminar covering a range of business topics, some touching on financial statement preparation, and has passed on a list of resulting questions.
One presenter, discussing the work of the International Accounting Standards Board (the Board), repeatedly referred to the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting. I had assumed the Board simply issued individual IFRS Standards to address specific reporting issues directly — so what exactly is this 'Conceptual Framework', and how does it relate to the individual Standards the Board issues? I don't need a detailed description — just a brief overview of its content, purpose, and how it fits into the overall financial reporting process.
The Conceptual Framework is a document setting out the objectives and underlying concepts for general purpose financial reporting. It underpins the IFRS Standards but is not itself a Standard.
Its concepts are organised into distinct chapters, covering matters such as the overall objective of general purpose financial reporting — providing financial information useful to existing and potential investors, lenders, and other creditors — along with a chapter setting out the qualitative characteristics that make financial information useful.
A central purpose of the Framework is to help the Board develop and revise individual IFRS Standards on a consistent conceptual basis, so the principles underlying any given Standard should generally align with the Framework.
Importantly, the Framework does not override any specific IFRS Standard. On the rare occasions the Board issues a new or revised Standard that conflicts with the Framework, it must explain the departure and its reasoning in that Standard's Basis for Conclusions.
The Framework also assists preparers in developing consistent accounting policies for matters not addressed by a specific Standard (such as cryptocurrency) or where a policy choice exists, and helps all parties interpret IFRS Standards more consistently.
One seminar topic was whether brand names belong on the statement of financial position as assets. Looking at our own consolidated accounts, I noticed the intangible assets note includes a separate 'Brands' heading, and the finance director has confirmed this figure relates entirely to brands acquired through subsidiary acquisitions — the Ayman brand name itself is nowhere to be found. This seems inconsistent to me: the Ayman brand is tied to well-known, popular products we developed ourselves, and is probably worth at least as much as the brands we've picked up through recent acquisitions. I thought financial statements were supposed to treat similar items consistently. Please explain this apparent inconsistency, and also explain how acquired brand names are measured and whether they should be amortised.
A brand name is an intangible asset, so its recognition and measurement is governed by IAS 38 (Intangible Assets). IAS 38 makes recognition depend on how the brand name arose: purchased brand names can be recognised as assets, but the treatment differs depending on the nature of the purchase.
Where a brand is bought in a standalone transaction, it is recognised at its purchase cost. Where a parent acquires a subsidiary, the purchase consideration is allocated across the individual identifiable assets and liabilities being brought into the consolidated accounts, with any unallocated residual presented as goodwill. A brand acquired this way can be recognised as a separate asset in the consolidated financial statements provided it is identifiable — meaning it is either separable (capable of being sold on its own) or arises from contractual or other legal rights, whether or not those rights are themselves transferable — even if the subsidiary never recognised the brand as an asset in its own individual accounts. Where identifiable, the brand is initially recognised at its fair value as at the acquisition date.
The Ayman brand itself, however, is internally generated from Ayman's own perspective. Internally generated intangible assets (aside from costs tied to developing a specific product or process) cannot be recognised, because their cost cannot be measured reliably. This is exactly why brands acquired with subsidiaries appear in the consolidated accounts while the Ayman brand does not — the difference lies in how each brand originated, not an inconsistency in treatment.
Once recognised, a brand name is amortised as an intangible asset over its estimated useful life. Where that useful life is assessed as indefinite, no amortisation is charged, but the brand must instead be tested for impairment at the end of every reporting period, regardless of whether any indicators of impairment exist.
The seminar also covered segmental reporting, illustrating this with disclosures from a listed entity roughly Ayman's size. Comparing that example against Ayman's own segmental note afterwards, I found our approach to identifying and presenting segments looks nothing like the seminar's example. Shouldn't financial statements be prepared on some consistent basis across entities?
Separately, I looked at the accounts of a key competitor — an unlisted, family-run business that has grown rapidly and is now nearly as large as the Ayman group, operating in the same sectors as us. Their financial statements contain no segmental disclosures whatsoever. How can omitting segmental reporting altogether be acceptable when this company also claims IFRS compliance?
Segmental disclosure requirements come from IFRS 8 (Operating Segments), which bases disclosure on an entity's own operating segments rather than a single fixed template. An operating segment is one that earns revenue and incurs expense, has discrete financial information available, and whose results are regularly reviewed by the chief operating decision maker — a function, not a specific job title, usually (but not always) performed by the chief executive, sometimes by a group of directors collectively.
Segments become reportable either because they clear IFRS 8's quantitative thresholds, or because reporting them helps users understand the nature of the business and the environment it operates in (products, production processes, customer types, distribution, regulatory environment). Since entities can be structured very differently internally, two outwardly similar businesses can validly identify and report quite different segments.
As for the competitor: IFRS 8 applies only to listed entities. Since this family-run business is unlisted, it is simply outside IFRS 8's scope and has no obligation to provide segmental disclosures at all, regardless of its size.
📅 Summer 2022
You are the financial controller of Ayman, a listed entity, and a director has raised queries about preparing the consolidated financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X5.
We acquired a controlling interest in Ekramy, currently unlisted, on 30 September 20X4; it operates two business segments that should complement our existing group well. Reviewing Ekramy's most recent published financial statements (prepared under full IFRS Standards), a couple of points confuse me.
Ekramy's most recent published accounts cover the year ended 31 December 20X4 — a different year end from the Ayman group's 31 March. How do we incorporate Ekramy's results into our consolidation given this mismatch? And now that we control Ekramy, could we simply require it to align its year end with ours?
IFRS 10 (Consolidated Financial Statements) sets out the relevant principles. Ordinarily, a subsidiary's financial information should be prepared to the same reporting date as its parent; where the dates differ, additional financial information is normally drawn up for the subsidiary as at the parent's reporting date.
Where this is impracticable, IFRS 10 permits the parent to consolidate using the subsidiary's most recent financial statements instead, provided adjustments are made for any significant transactions occurring between the subsidiary's reporting date and the parent's — but only where the two reporting dates are no more than three months apart.
Since Ekramy's 31 December 20X4 year end sits within three months of Ayman's 31 March 20X5 year end, it is acceptable to use Ekramy's existing financial statements (adjusted for any significant intervening transactions) when preparing the Ayman group's consolidated accounts. There is no requirement for Ekramy to change its year end following the acquisition, though aligning the dates might simplify future consolidations.
Part of why I reviewed Ekramy's published financial statements was to see how its revenue and profit split across its two business segments — something I've found genuinely useful when assessing our existing group's segments in our own consolidated accounts. But Ekramy's financial statements contain none of the segmental disclosures I'm used to seeing in Ayman's consolidated statements. How can Ekramy's accounts comply with full IFRS Standards without this information? And does Ekramy's own lack of segmental reporting mean we can simply leave segmental disclosure for Ekramy out of the Ayman group's consolidated accounts for the year ended 31 March 20X5?
Segmental disclosures are governed by IFRS 8 (Operating Segments), which applies only to listed entities. Since Ekramy itself is unlisted, it has no obligation to provide these disclosures in its own individual financial statements.
However, now that Ekramy is part of the Ayman group, its operating segments must in principle be considered for disclosure within Ayman's consolidated financial statements — provided they meet IFRS 8's reportability criteria. Specifically, a segment must be regularly reviewed by the group's chief operating decision maker and be material in the context of the whole group: broadly, its reported revenue, profit, or assets must reach at least 10% of the combined total for all operating segments across the group. Even where a segment falls short of these quantitative thresholds, IFRS 8 still permits its disclosure if management judges the information would be useful to users.
I've noticed Ekramy holds some investment properties, and a note to its financial statements confirms these are measured under the cost model. The Ayman group's policy, in line with full IFRS Standards, is to use the fair value model instead — so Ekramy's approach must surely be wrong. Given that, how should Ekramy's investment properties be treated in Ayman's consolidated financial statements? And now that we control Ekramy, should we insist it changes its accounting policy in its own individual accounts too?
Investment property is governed by IAS 40 (Investment Property), which requires initial measurement at cost, but then permits a policy choice for subsequent measurement: either the cost model or the fair value model, applied consistently to all investment property held.
Ekramy's use of the cost model in its own financial statements is not, in itself, incorrect — IAS 40 permits either model. However, at the date Ayman acquires Ekramy, the 'cost' of Ekramy's investment properties for consolidation purposes becomes their fair value as at the acquisition date. From that point on, the Ayman group must measure these properties under the fair value model for consolidation purposes, requiring ongoing adjustments at the group level. Ekramy is not required to change its own individual accounting policy, though doing so might make future consolidations more straightforward in practice.
To help assess the consolidated financial statements prepared for the year ended 31 March 20X5, I reviewed Ayman's prior-year accounts (year ended 31 March 20X4) alongside those of a key competitor, Mrehan. Comparing the two statements of profit or loss and other comprehensive income raised a question.
Both statements show broadly similar headline items — revenue, finance costs, profit before tax, income tax expense — on the face of the statement. But beyond these, most of the detailed line items look completely different, particularly how operating expenses are broken down into categories. How can this be, if both companies claim full IFRS compliance?
The overall presentation requirements sit in IAS 1 (Presentation of Financial Statements), which mandates that certain key items — such as revenue and income tax expense — must appear on the face of the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income.
Beyond these mandated items, IAS 1 requires only that additional line items be presented in whatever manner best supports understanding of the entity's financial performance. In particular, operating expenses may be classified by either their nature or their function, whichever produces more reliable and relevant information for that specific entity.
Since Ayman and Mrehan can each validly choose the classification approach that best suits their own circumstances, it is entirely possible — and fully compliant with IFRS Standards — for their detailed expense line items to differ substantially even while both satisfy IAS 1's requirements.
I'm still not clear on what determines whether an item lands in the 'profit or loss' section versus the 'other comprehensive income' section. Do entities simply get a free choice here, and would the answer change how we assess performance?
On the allocation question: IAS 1 requires all income and expense items to be presented within profit or loss, unless another IFRS Standard specifically requires or permits otherwise — so there is no free choice, and no clean theoretical dividing line between 'profit or loss items' and 'other comprehensive income items' as separate categories in their own right.
That said, a practical pattern does emerge: gains are more often routed to other comprehensive income than losses are (revaluation gains on property, plant and equipment typically go to OCI, for instance, while revaluation losses typically hit profit or loss instead).
Why this matters for performance assessment: only amounts recognised in profit or loss feed into earnings per share, a key performance indicator listed entities must disclose. Anything parked in other comprehensive income sits outside that calculation entirely.
📅 Winter 2022
You are the financial controller of Ayman. During the year ended 30 September 20X4 we acquired a new subsidiary operating several farms with both cattle and sheep. I'm comfortable with how the initial consolidation worked, but I'm unsure how this subsidiary's assets have been measured in the accounts at 30 September 20X5.
I understand cost-based measurement for things we've bought outright — farm machinery, or cattle and sheep purchased from the market. But what about animals born on the farm since acquisition, where there's no purchase cost at all? And what about produce like meat or milk? Please explain how this subsidiary's assets are measured in the statement of financial position, and when profits or losses on farming assets actually get recognised given there's often no real acquisition cost to speak of.
IAS 41 (Agriculture) covers exactly this situation. Agricultural activity means managing the biological transformation and harvest of biological assets, either for sale or for conversion into produce or further biological assets. A biological asset is a living plant or animal — cattle and sheep qualify directly. Agricultural produce is what's harvested from those assets — meat and milk both qualify. Much of this subsidiary's asset base therefore falls squarely within IAS 41.
Biological assets are measured at fair value less costs to sell, both on initial recognition and at every subsequent year end. For purchased cattle or sheep, a reliable market-based fair value is straightforward to establish. Newly born animals follow exactly the same principle — they are recognised immediately at fair value less costs to sell, with the corresponding gain recognised in profit or loss at birth, even though no cash changed hands to acquire them.
IAS 41 does permit a cost-model fallback where fair value cannot be reliably measured, but this is unlikely to apply to cattle or sheep, given how readily market values are typically available for livestock.
Agricultural produce, meanwhile, is measured at fair value less costs to sell specifically at the point of harvest — defined as either detachment from the biological asset (milking a cow) or the end of the biological asset's life (slaughtering an animal for meat). Recognising the produce at that point typically triggers an equivalent gain in profit or loss. From then on, however, the produce moves out of IAS 41 and into IAS 2 (Inventories), with any further profit or loss recognised only when it is actually sold.
Other assets belonging to this subsidiary — farmland, machinery, trade receivables, and so on — continue to be measured under whichever IFRS Standard would normally apply to assets of that type.
At our board meeting, the finance director summarised three events occurring shortly after 30 September 20X5:
- Settlement of a legal case brought by a former employee against one of our subsidiaries, relating to alleged unfair dismissal on 31 December 20X4. At 30 September 20X5, our legal team had estimated a likely payout of $500,000. The case was actually settled on 20 October 20X5, requiring payment of $560,000 including court costs.
- A fire at another subsidiary's factory on 11 October 20X5, with rectification costs estimated at $2 million. The subsidiary has sufficient resources to fund this itself, though no insurance was in place to cover it.
- A competitor's launch of a new product on 10 November 20X5, likely to compete heavily with one of another subsidiary's key products. Since that subsidiary may need to cut its selling prices in response, its inventory's net realisable value at 30 September 20X5 could now be around $250,000 below cost.
I'm unsure how each of these should be reflected in the financial statements for the year ended 30 September 20X5, bearing in mind the group accounts were authorised for issue on 31 October 20X5. Please explain the correct treatment for each.
IAS 10 (Events after the Reporting Period) governs all three situations. It defines an event after the reporting date as one occurring between the year end and the date the financial statements are authorised for issue, and splits such events into adjusting and non-adjusting categories.
An adjusting event provides additional evidence of conditions that already existed at the year end. The legal settlement fits this description precisely: the unfair dismissal itself occurred on 31 December 20X4, well before the year end, so the October settlement simply confirms the final amount of a liability that already existed at 30 September 20X5. IAS 10 requires adjusting events to be reflected in the financial statements, so we recognise a $560,000 liability at 30 September 20X5 and a corresponding $560,000 expense for the year, along with any additional disclosure that would help users.
Non-adjusting events, by contrast, relate to conditions arising only after the year end, and are disclosed in the notes (if material) rather than recognised in the figures themselves. The factory fire fits here — nothing about it existed at 30 September 20X5. The only circumstance that would override this non-recognition rule is a threat to going concern, which does not apply since the subsidiary can fund the repairs itself.
The competitor's product launch, on 10 November 20X5, falls after the 31 October 20X5 authorisation date entirely, so it does not qualify as an event after the reporting period for these financial statements at all. Its effect, if any, will instead be reflected in the year ending 30 September 20X6.
On 1 August 20X5, Ayman purchased inventory from a supplier in a country using the groat as its currency, invoiced at 840,000 groats, and paid for it on 31 August 20X5. We then sold this inventory to customers in that same country during October 20X5 for 1 million groats, apparently at a healthy profit. I'm unsure how this transaction should have been reflected in our financial statements for the year ended 30 September 20X5, given our group reports in dollars and the exchange rate moved throughout the transaction, as follows:
| Date | Exchange rate (groats to $1) |
|---|---|
| 1 August 20X5 | 6 |
| 31 August 20X5 | 7 |
| 30 September 20X5 | 8 |
Please explain the correct financial reporting treatment.
Since this purchase is denominated in a foreign currency, it is a foreign currency transaction under IAS 21 (The Effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rates), which requires initial recognition at the exchange rate prevailing on the transaction date. Here, that means recording both inventory and a payable of $140,000 (840,000 ÷ 6).
The payable was settled on 31 August 20X5, by which point the rate had moved to 7, meaning only $120,000 (840,000 ÷ 7) of cash was actually needed to clear it. The difference — an exchange gain of $20,000 ($140,000 less $120,000) — is recognised in profit or loss.
The inventory itself, however, is a non-monetary item once recorded at cost, so it is not retranslated at the year end; it remains at $140,000.
IAS 2 (Inventories) then requires inventory to be measured at the lower of cost and net realisable value. Net realisable value here is $125,000 (the $1 million expected sale proceeds ÷ the closing rate of 8, since NRV is inherently a monetary measure and must use the year-end rate). Because $125,000 is lower than the $140,000 cost, the inventory is written down to $125,000, with a further loss of $15,000 ($140,000 less $125,000) recognised in profit or loss for the year ended 30 September 20X5.
📅 Summer 2023
You are the financial controller of Ayman, a listed entity with several subsidiaries, reporting to a 30 June year end. A non-accountant director has reviewed the first draft of the consolidated financial statements for the year ended 30 June 20X5 and raised a query.
Most of our group companies use the same external distributor, Dixon, to get products to customers; transactions and balances with Dixon are significant at the whole-group level. However, one subsidiary, Khalifa, instead uses a different distributor, Rewan — a company controlled by the spouse of Khalifa's managing director, who also sits on Ayman's board. Transactions with Rewan are significant to Khalifa on a standalone basis, though not significant to the Ayman group as a whole.
The director is puzzled that our consolidated financial statements disclose the Rewan transactions but say nothing about Dixon — she would have expected the opposite, given the relative sizes involved. Please explain this, and what level of detail such disclosures should normally include.
Rewan must be disclosed because it qualifies as a related party of Ayman under IAS 24 (Related Party Disclosures). A director of an entity is automatically part of that entity's key management personnel, and key management personnel are automatically related parties — so Khalifa's MD, being an Ayman director too, is a related party of Ayman. IAS 24 also treats close family members of related parties as related parties in their own right, bringing the MD's spouse within scope. Since Rewan is controlled by that spouse, Rewan itself becomes a related party of Ayman by extension.
The required disclosures for Rewan would cover the nature of the relationship, the value of transactions during the period, and any outstanding balances (most likely payables) at the year end. Related party materiality is judged on qualitative grounds as much as quantitative ones, which is exactly why the comparatively small Rewan transactions still warrant disclosure — users need to be able to assess the significance of the relationship itself, not just the dollar amounts involved.
Dixon, by contrast, is not a related party at all under IAS 24, however large the transaction values — so disclosure there would only be needed if considered otherwise relevant to understanding the consolidated financial statements as a whole.
During the last year we acquired a 35% shareholding in Ekramy for $60 million. Two other shareholders hold the remaining shares — one with 28%, the other with 37% — and every shareholder, including us, can appoint two of Ekramy's six directors, with board decisions passed by simple majority. Ekramy has paid no dividends since we invested, since it's been reinvesting cash generated to fund expansion. Our draft consolidated accounts show the investment in Ekramy at $63.5 million.
I don't understand why a single figure appears here as a non-current asset at all — I thought consolidated accounts showed a subsidiary's underlying assets and liabilities directly, not an investment figure, and surely our substantial shareholding makes Ekramy a subsidiary? Even setting that aside, if we are showing an investment figure, shouldn't it simply be the $60 million we paid? Is the $63.5 million meant to reflect the year-end share value? Please explain the reporting treatment here.
Ekramy is not a subsidiary of Ayman. Under IFRS 10 (Consolidated Financial Statements), a subsidiary is an entity the investor controls — and a 35% stake with the ability to appoint only two of six directors does not give Ayman control over Ekramy.
That combination of shareholding and board representation does, however, point toward significant influence rather than control. Under IAS 28 (Investments in Associates and Joint Ventures), Ekramy is therefore treated as an associate of Ayman — consistent with IAS 28's rebuttable presumption that a 20%-or-greater equity stake confers significant influence.
Since Ayman prepares consolidated financial statements, IAS 28 requires the investment in Ekramy to be accounted for using the equity method: initially recorded at cost, then adjusted each period for Ayman's share of Ekramy's post-acquisition change in net assets, with that adjustment flowing through profit or loss or other comprehensive income as appropriate. Any profits arising from transactions between Ayman and Ekramy are eliminated to the extent of Ayman's ownership share, and the investment is written down if it becomes impaired.
The movement from $60 million to $63.5 million implies Ekramy's net assets have grown by roughly $10 million since acquisition, with Ayman's 35% share of that increase — $3.5 million — added to the original cost. This equity-accounted carrying amount is not designed to track the market value of the shares, which is instead driven by market forces independently of this calculation.
We acquired control of a new subsidiary, Ibrahim, during the year ended 30 June 20X5, and its results are included in our draft consolidated accounts for the first time. I noticed several adjustments were made to Ibrahim's own figures before consolidation.
One example: development expenditure that Ibrahim expensed in its own individual accounts appears instead as an intangible asset in our consolidated figures. By contrast, when I look at Mariam — a smaller, unlisted subsidiary acquired some years back — its own individual accounts already show development expenditure as an intangible asset, requiring no such adjustment on consolidation.
Please explain this apparent inconsistency. Surely all research and development spending should be treated as an intangible asset given its likely future benefit, and surely development costs should be treated consistently across our accounts? Is the difference simply because Ibrahim, being small and unlisted, uses a simplified version of IFRS Standards — and are all small companies required to use that simplified version?
IFRS 10 (Consolidated Financial Statements) requires uniform accounting policies to be applied across all group entities when preparing consolidated financial statements. Where an individual group entity's own policies differ from the parent's, appropriate adjustments must be made when bringing its assets, liabilities, profits, and losses into the consolidated accounts — which is exactly what has happened with Ibrahim.
The likely explanation is that Ibrahim reports under the IFRS for SMEs Standard, while Mariam applies full IFRS Accounting Standards. Eligibility to use the SMEs Standard does not depend on an entity's size, but on whether it has public accountability. Entities without public accountability may choose — but are never required — to use the SMEs Standard instead of full IFRS, which likely explains why Ibrahim uses it while Mariam does not.
The SMEs Standard carries lighter disclosure requirements and simpler accounting treatments in several areas. One clear example: under the SMEs Standard, all research and development costs are expensed immediately, with no exceptions. Under full IFRS, development costs fall under IAS 38 (Intangible Assets), which requires capitalisation as an intangible asset once a project is separately identifiable, expenditure can be measured reliably, adequate resources exist to complete it, and future economic benefits are reasonably certain to exceed the capitalised cost. Research costs, by contrast, must always be expensed under IAS 38 too, since at the research stage there is no definite prospect of future benefit.
Requiring Ibrahim to adopt full IFRS Standards in its own future accounts could simplify the consolidation process going forward, by removing the need for this kind of adjustment altogether.
📅 Winter 2023
You are the financial controller of Ayman, a listed entity with several subsidiaries reporting to a 30 June year end. Ayman's sales director, who isn't an accountant, reviewed the first draft of the consolidated financial statements for the year ended 30 June 20X5 and raised some questions.
Most of Ayman's assets appear to be measured at historical cost — what we originally paid — yet the notes show some assets, such as our portfolio of listed equity shares, measured at fair value instead. This looks inconsistent to the sales director. He also points out that listed shares have both a price you'd pay to buy them and a different price at which you could sell them, and that they may trade on multiple exchanges — so which 'market price' should actually be used?
Specifically:
- How do we decide when to use historical cost versus fair value?
- When fair value is used, how is it actually measured?
- Which quoted price should we use for equity shares?
- What do we do when there's no market price at all, such as for shares in an unlisted company?
Whether fair value applies at all is determined by individual IFRS Accounting Standards, which collectively produce a mixed measurement model across different asset types — there's no single overarching rule.
The Standard governing how fair value is measured, once it applies, is IFRS 13 (Fair Value Measurement). IFRS 13 defines fair value as the amount that would be received to sell an asset in an orderly transaction between market participants — an exit price, not an entry price, with transaction costs excluded from the calculation entirely. For listed shares quoted with separate buy and sell prices, it is the sell price that is relevant to fair value.
Fair value should be based on observable market prices wherever possible. If an asset trades in more than one market, as can easily happen with listed shares, the relevant market is the principal one in which the asset is actually traded.
Where no direct market price exists — unlisted shares, for instance — IFRS 13 requires fair value to be estimated using an appropriate valuation technique. This might involve referencing the market price of a comparable listed entity's shares, adjusted for the target company's relative lack of marketability, or discounting projected future earnings at a suitable rate.
I'm confused about how we account for properties, since it appears all of ours are measured at fair value.
- How do we even establish a property's fair value when we don't advertise it for sale and have no plans to sell any property in the foreseeable future?
There also seems to be real inconsistency in how often we revalue properties, and in how gains or losses on revaluation are treated:
- Properties we rent out to others appear to be revalued every single year, with all gains and losses going through profit or loss;
- Properties we occupy ourselves, like factories and warehouses, seem to be revalued far less often, perhaps every three years or so; and
- Gains or losses on revaluing these owner-occupied properties usually go to other comprehensive income, but sometimes to profit or loss instead.
This all looks inconsistent — shouldn't we just apply one single approach across all our properties? Please explain what looks like conflicting treatment.
A property's fair value is established using IFRS 13's principles. In practice, this almost always means referencing recent open-market sale prices for comparable properties in the same location, reflecting the highest and best use the property could be put to (not necessarily its current use), since IFRS 13 requires fair value to reflect how market participants would actually value the asset.
Two separate Standards govern property recognition and measurement: IAS 40 (Investment Property) and IAS 16 (Property, Plant and Equipment). IAS 40 defines investment property as property held to earn rental income and/or capital appreciation — exactly matching the properties we rent out. IAS 40 permits either the cost model or the fair value model for investment property, and it appears Ayman has chosen the fair value model, under which investment properties are revalued every year with all gains and losses recognised in profit or loss.
Owner-occupied properties instead fall under IAS 16, which similarly permits either the cost model or the revaluation model for a given class of assets — so using fair value for these properties too is entirely consistent with IAS 16. Under the revaluation model, however, properties only need to be revalued regularly enough that their carrying amount doesn't materially diverge from fair value at each year end; this does not require annual revaluation, which explains the less frequent cycle you've observed. As for gains and losses: a revaluation surplus goes to other comprehensive income, unless it reverses a previous revaluation deficit on the same asset that had gone through profit or loss, in which case it is recognised in profit or loss instead (up to the amount of that original deficit). A revaluation deficit works the mirror-opposite way: it hits profit or loss unless reversing a previous surplus recognised in other comprehensive income on the same asset. This explains why the treatment sometimes flips between the two.
We have two subsidiaries, Ekramy and Mrehan, with fairly similar business models selling similar products in different geographic markets. Ekramy was created and incorporated by the Ayman Group itself ten years ago; Mrehan, despite also having traded for around ten years, only came under Ayman's control a couple of years ago when we acquired it.
Given how similar their asset profiles are, I expected them to affect our consolidated accounts in similar ways — but there are striking differences: goodwill appears in relation to Mrehan but not Ekramy; Mrehan's brand name is recognised as an asset but Ekramy's is not; and Mrehan's property, plant and equipment carries a significantly higher value than Ekramy's despite the underlying assets being very similar. Please explain these differences.
The difference comes down to how each subsidiary joined the group. Ekramy's assets, including any goodwill and its brand name, arose through internal development within the Ayman group — making them internally generated intangible assets. IAS 38 (Intangible Assets) prohibits recognising internally generated goodwill and brand names outright, except where they arise from a qualifying research and development project. That is why neither Ekramy's goodwill nor its brand name appears in the consolidated accounts.
Mrehan, by contrast, joined the group through a business combination, governed by IFRS 3 (Business Combinations). IFRS 3 requires the difference between the fair value of consideration paid and the fair value of net assets acquired to be recognised as goodwill, and requires the acquired entity's identifiable assets and liabilities to be separately recognised at fair value as at the acquisition date. Provided Mrehan's brand name can be reliably fair valued, it is recognised as an intangible asset for exactly this reason. Similarly, Mrehan's property, plant and equipment is carried in the consolidated accounts at its fair value on the acquisition date, whereas Ekramy's equivalent assets remain at their original historical cost to the group — almost certainly a lower figure, given how the two subsidiaries came to be part of Ayman.
📅 Summer 2024
You are the financial controller of Ayman, a listed entity with several subsidiaries reporting to a 30 September year end. A trainee accountant preparing the first draft of the consolidated financial statements for the year ended 30 September 20X5 has raised some questions.
We know we must disclose the financial performance and position of our different business segments in the notes to our consolidated accounts. During the year we acquired two new subsidiaries, Ekramy and Mrehan — both unlisted, and broadly similar in profit and net asset levels. Out of interest, the trainee compared each subsidiary's own segmental disclosures against what appears in our consolidated accounts, and found:
- Ayman's segmental disclosures are organised by geographical area;
- Ekramy's disclosures are organised by product type; and
- Mrehan provides no segmental disclosures at all.
All three — Ayman, Ekramy, and Mrehan — claim to prepare their financial statements under IFRS Accounting Standards. How can three different approaches to segmental reporting all be correct at once?
IFRS 8 (Operating Segments) is the relevant Standard, requiring entities within its scope to disclose based on their own operating segments. Crucially, IFRS 8 only applies compulsorily to listed entities; unlisted entities may choose to disclose voluntarily, but if they do, must follow IFRS 8's requirements in full. This is almost certainly why Ekramy provides segmental disclosures (voluntarily) while Mrehan provides none at all.
An operating segment is a component of the business with discrete financial information available, whose results are regularly reviewed by the chief operating decision maker — the individual or group responsible for assessing performance and allocating resources. It appears Ayman manages performance geographically, while Ekramy does so by product type; each entity's segments simply follow its own internal management structure.
IFRS 8 does, however, impose some baseline disclosures on all applicable entities regardless of segment structure — typically revenue by geographical area and by product type, plus non-current assets by geographical area — though the geographical-area requirement can be dropped if obtaining that data would be excessively costly, provided that fact is itself disclosed. This may well account for some of the remaining differences between Ayman's and Ekramy's disclosures.
A trainee accountant is confused about how Ayman accounts for financial assets. Prior years' notes show some measured at fair value and others at amortised cost, and among those at fair value, some changes go through profit or loss while others go through other comprehensive income. Please help by answering:
- What exactly counts as a 'financial asset'?
- Is 'fair value' just another way of saying resale value?
- What does 'amortised cost' actually mean?
- Is there a genuine choice between fair value and amortised cost, and how is that choice made?
- Where fair value applies, how do we decide whether changes go to profit or loss or to other comprehensive income?
I. What counts as a financial asset? IAS 32 (Financial Instruments: Presentation) defines a financial asset broadly to include: cash itself; an equity instrument issued by another entity; a contractual right to receive cash (or another financial asset) from another party; or a contractual right to exchange financial instruments with another party under potentially favourable terms.
II. Is fair value the same as resale value? Not quite — fair value has a specific technical meaning under IFRS 13 (Fair Value Measurement): the price that would be received to sell the asset in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date. It's a market-based concept, not simply 'whatever we could personally get for it'.
III. What does amortised cost mean? Under IFRS 9 (Financial Instruments), amortised cost starts from the asset's initial recognition amount, then adjusts over time for the cumulative effect of the effective interest method spreading any gap between that initial amount and the eventual maturity amount, further adjusted for any expected credit loss allowance. In effect, interest income is recognised at whatever constant rate exactly discounts the asset's expected future cash receipts back to its original carrying amount.
IV. Is there a real choice, and how is it made? Classification under IFRS 9 depends on two tests applied together: the business model under which the asset is held, and the nature of its contractual cash flows. A financial asset is measured at amortised cost only where (1) it is held within a business model whose objective is to collect the contractual cash flows, and (2) those contractual cash flows are solely payments of principal and interest on the amounts outstanding. Where the business model instead aims both to collect contractual cash flows and to sell the asset — with the same 'solely principal and interest' cash flow test still satisfied — the asset is measured at fair value through other comprehensive income instead. Anything falling outside both these categories defaults to fair value through profit or loss.
V. Where fair value applies, how is profit-or-loss versus OCI decided? For an equity instrument not held for trading, an entity may make an irrevocable election at initial recognition to present fair value changes through other comprehensive income instead of profit or loss. Any equity instrument without this election defaults to fair value through profit or loss. Separately, IFRS 9 also allows an irrevocable election, at initial recognition, to designate any financial asset at fair value through profit or loss where doing so removes or significantly reduces a measurement or recognition inconsistency that would otherwise arise.
Several of Ayman's subsidiaries enter into contracts with customers to construct assets for those customers' own use. The final amount receivable often depends on how quickly construction meets an agreed standard, and additional uncertainty sometimes arises from early-payment discounts offered to customers. Please address:
- When should revenue on a construction contract be recognised — do we wait until construction is fully complete?
- Should cost recognition follow the same pattern as revenue recognition, or should costs incurred simply be debited to cost of sales as they arise?
- What happens if we assess a contract as likely to be loss-making?
- Do we need to know the precise amount receivable before recognising any revenue at all?
I. Timing of revenue recognition. IFRS 15 (Revenue from Contracts with Customers) governs this. Contracts with customers create performance obligations, and the general principle is that revenue is recognised as each performance obligation is satisfied — either at a single point in time or over a period, depending on the obligation's nature. Construction contracts typically satisfy their performance obligation over time, so revenue should likewise be recognised progressively as construction proceeds, not deferred until completion.
II. Cost recognition. IFRS 15 does not mandate one specific method for measuring progress toward completion of an over-time performance obligation, but it does describe acceptable approaches, broadly grouped as output methods (based on the proportion of contract value delivered) or input methods (based on the proportion of expected total costs incurred). Whichever method is chosen must then be applied consistently to similar contracts. Where the relevant criteria are met, the direct costs of fulfilling the contract's performance obligations should first be recognised as an asset, then amortised to cost of sales in a pattern consistent with how revenue is being recognised — not simply expensed as incurred.
III. Loss-making contracts. Where expected future costs exceed expected future revenue on a contract, an impairment loss equal to that shortfall is recognised immediately in profit or loss. Such a contract is treated as onerous under IAS 37 (Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets), which requires recognition of the future net cost of fulfilling it.
IV. Variable consideration. IFRS 15 recognises that many contracts combine fixed and variable elements, meaning the final receivable amount may genuinely be unknown at the outset. Rather than waiting for certainty, IFRS 15 permits estimating variable consideration using either the expected value method (probability-weighted) or the most likely amount method, whichever better predicts the amount the entity will be entitled to — applied consistently for the life of the contract.
📅 Winter 2024
You are the financial controller of Ayman, a listed entity with several subsidiaries. Your trainee, D, is preparing the first draft of the consolidated financial statements for the year ended 31 December 20X5 and is uncertain how to treat certain transactions.
One subsidiary, Ekramy, mines minerals and is constantly searching for and evaluating new extraction sites. D isn't sure whether the resulting costs should be expensed or capitalised, and asks:
- Is there a specific IFRS Accounting Standard covering exploration and evaluation expenditure, and what does it actually cover?
- How do we decide whether such expenditure is recognised as an asset or expensed?
- How are any recognised exploration and evaluation assets subsequently classified and measured?
- How, if at all, does the Standard covering research and development expenditure interact with exploration and evaluation costs?
(i) Relevant Standard and scope. IFRS 6 (Exploration for and Evaluation of Mineral Resources) addresses exactly this. It applies specifically to expenditure incurred after legal rights to explore a defined area have been obtained, but before the technical feasibility and commercial viability of extracting the mineral resource have been demonstrated. Examples given in IFRS 6 include the acquisition of exploration rights and the cost of exploratory drilling, though the list is not exhaustive.
(ii) Asset versus expense. IFRS 6 does not mandate a single approach; instead, it allows each entity to develop its own accounting policy specifying which categories of exploration and evaluation expenditure are treated as assets versus expenses, provided that policy is then applied consistently.
(iii) Subsequent classification and measurement. Recognised exploration and evaluation assets are classified as tangible or intangible depending on their nature, initially measured at cost, and subsequently measured under either the cost model or the revaluation model.
(iv) Interaction with research and development requirements. IAS 38 (Intangible Assets) governs research and development costs generally, requiring research costs to be expensed but permitting development costs meeting specific criteria to be capitalised. Exploration and evaluation expenditure under IFRS 6 could reasonably be seen as analogous to 'research' costs, which is consistent with IFRS 6 leaving the accounting policy choice to each entity rather than mandating capitalisation. Once a specific exploration and evaluation project demonstrates technical feasibility and commercial viability, any assets already recognised are reassessed for reclassification under IAS 38 or IAS 16 (Property, Plant and Equipment), after first being tested for impairment.
Another subsidiary, Mrehan, entered into two significant new arrangements during the year, each involving collaboration with other investors.
Arrangement 1 — Mrehan, together with two other investors, incorporated a new distribution entity whose sole purpose is delivering products sold by all three investors. Every key operating decision requires the unanimous consent of all three investors, who have each contributed equal capital to fund a fleet of delivery vehicles and cover running costs such as drivers' wages.
Arrangement 2 — Mrehan, together with two other (different) investors, incorporated a separate new entity to jointly develop and sell an entirely new product range not currently sold directly by any of the investors. Again, every key decision requires unanimous consent, and all three investors contributed equal share capital on incorporation — though this second entity has also taken on external borrowing of its own to help fund operations.
I assumed both arrangements would be treated identically in our consolidated accounts, but a colleague suggested otherwise. Please explain the appropriate treatment for each, and why they might differ.
Both arrangements fall under IFRS 11 (Joint Arrangements), since both display joint control — the contractually agreed sharing of control that exists only where decisions about relevant activities require unanimous consent among the controlling parties, as is the case here for both arrangements. IFRS 11 distinguishes two types of joint arrangement: a joint operation and a joint venture, with the distinction turning on whether the investors have direct rights to the arrangement's individual assets and obligations for its individual liabilities, or instead simply hold a right to the arrangement's overall net assets.
Where a joint arrangement exists mainly to help investors operate their own existing businesses more efficiently, the investors typically retain direct rights and obligations over its specific assets and liabilities — making it a joint operation. This describes Arrangement 1: since the invested cash funds specific vehicles and their operating costs, each investor recognises its own share of those vehicles as property, plant and equipment, together with its share of the running costs as expenses, directly in its own financial statements.
Where a joint arrangement instead runs an essentially separate business of its own, distinct from what the investors do individually, it is typically a joint venture. This describes Arrangement 2, given its distinct new product line and its own external financing. Joint venture investments are measured as a single line item using the equity method — the investor's share of the investee's net assets at each reporting date — meaning each investor's share of the entity's post-acquisition profits flows through profit or loss over the life of the investment, rather than each investor separately recognising individual assets and liabilities.
Another subsidiary, Mrehan, runs a farming operation — a herd of dairy cows and a herd of sheep raised for meat. I haven't encountered this type of business before and want to understand how such a business reports its financial position, particularly given that many of the animals themselves were born into the herd rather than purchased. Please help with:
- Is there a specific IFRS Accounting Standard covering the financial statements of a farming business, and what is its scope?
- How are Mrehan's cow and sheep herds recognised, measured, and presented?
- Inventory is normally measured at cost under IFRS Accounting Standards — so how do we establish the 'cost' of milk and meat inventory that was never purchased or manufactured?
(i) Relevant Standard and scope. IAS 41 (Agriculture) covers agricultural activity specifically, rather than a farming business's financial statements as a whole — other assets, such as property, plant and equipment, remain governed by the Standards that would normally apply (IAS 16, in that case). IAS 41 introduces the concept of a biological asset — a living plant or animal — which covers both the dairy cow herd and the sheep herd.
(ii) Recognition, measurement, and presentation. A biological asset is recognised once control is established — for Mrehan, when cattle or sheep are purchased, or born and appropriately marked as belonging to the herd. Biological assets are measured at fair value less costs to sell both on initial recognition and at every subsequent reporting date, with changes in that fair value recognised in profit or loss. IAS 1 (Presentation of Financial Statements) further requires biological assets to be shown as their own separate category on the statement of financial position.
(iii) Measuring harvested produce. IAS 41 defines agricultural produce as the harvested output of biological assets — milk from the dairy herd and meat from the sheep herd both qualify. Agricultural produce is measured, at the point of harvest, at fair value less costs to sell; this becomes the produce's initial 'cost' once it is reclassified as inventory and brought within the scope of IAS 2 (Inventories) from that point onward.
📅 Summer 2025
You are the financial controller of Mrehan, a recently listed entity with several subsidiaries reporting to a 31 March year end. One of Mrehan's non-accountant directors has raised questions following a board discussion of the draft consolidated financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X5.
The board discussed segmental reporting, and the director noted the following figures presented by the finance director. Mrehan is an international restaurant chain managed internally by geographical region, and does not currently report segmental information under IFRS 8 (Operating Segments). Regional results for the year ended 31 March 20X5 were:
| Region | External $'000 | Internal $'000 | Profit/(Loss) $'000 | Segment assets $'000 |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Americas | 2,010 | 1,020 | 345 | 6,700 |
| Asia Pacific | 315 | 90 | 86 | 2,100 |
| Australia | 415 | 0 | 47 | 300 |
| Europe | 405 | 5 | 2 | 900 |
| Total | 3,145 | 1,115 | 480 | 10,000 |
There were no significant inter-company balances within segment assets and liabilities. Restaurants operate in major cities across these regions, with individual performance indicators set for each restaurant.
The finance director also suggested this director personally might count as a 'chief operating decision maker' under IFRS 8 — which, given her limited familiarity with IFRS Accounting Standards, seems implausible to her.
Please answer:
- What distinguishes an 'operating segment' from a 'reportable segment'?
- Would she, or the board collectively, qualify as chief operating decision maker, and what does that role mean for segment reporting?
- Which segments must actually be reported, with supporting calculations to one decimal place?
Operating segment versus reportable segment. IFRS 8's core principle is that an entity should disclose enough information for users to understand the types of business activity it engages in and the economic environments it operates within. An operating segment is a component of the entity that engages in activities generating revenue and expense (including from transactions with other parts of the same entity), whose operating results are regularly reviewed by the chief operating decision maker (CODM) for resource-allocation and performance-assessment purposes, and for which discrete financial information is available. Even a component that sells almost exclusively to other segments within the same entity can qualify as an operating segment if that's how the entity is actually managed.
A reportable segment, by contrast, is simply any operating segment that clears at least one of three quantitative thresholds: (1) its reported revenue — external plus intersegment — is 10% or more of all segments' combined revenue; (2) its reported profit or loss, in absolute terms, is 10% or more of the greater of the combined profits of all profitable segments or the combined losses of all loss-making segments; or (3) its assets are 10% or more of all segments' combined assets. If reportable segments in total capture less than 75% of the entity's total external revenue, additional segments must be added as reportable until that 75% threshold is reached.
Chief operating decision maker. IFRS 8 identifies operating segments based on internal reports reviewed by whoever allocates resources and assesses performance — and this role is a function, not a specific individual, so it may be performed collectively by a group such as the executive board. Since she is a board member and the board as a whole reviews segment performance and allocates resources, she would indeed be considered part of the chief operating decision maker function, collectively with the rest of the board.
Which segments are reportable.
| Region | External $'000 | Internal $'000 | % of total revenue | Profit $'000 | % of profit | Assets $'000 | % of assets |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Americas | 2,010 | 1,020 | 71.1% | 345 | – | 6,700 | – |
| Asia Pacific | 315 | 90 | 9.5% | 86 | 17.9% | 2,100 | – |
| Australia | 415 | 0 | 9.7% | 47 | 9.8% | 300 | 3.0% |
| Europe | 405 | 5 | 9.6% | 2 | 0.4% | 900 | 9.0% |
Americas clears the 10% revenue threshold (71.1%) on its own, so it is reportable — only one threshold needs to be met. Asia Pacific misses the revenue test but clears the 10% profit threshold (17.9%), making it reportable too. Australia and Europe individually clear none of the three thresholds. However, Americas and Asia Pacific together capture only $2,325,000 ($2,010,000 + $315,000) of external revenue — 73.9% of the $3,145,000 total — short of the 75% requirement, so at least one further segment must be added as reportable. Either Australia or Europe would suffice to clear 75% if included. Whichever segment remains unreported would then be shown within an 'all other segments' category, to reconcile back to the total financial statement figures.
The board meeting also touched on the sustainability disclosure standards issued by the International Sustainability Standards Board — still new territory for this director. The finance director said Mrehan need not worry about these, but sustainability (climate change especially) matters a great deal in this industry, with customers sometimes choosing restaurants partly based on sustainability credentials. Please help with:
- The scope and objectives of the general disclosures required by IFRS S2 (Climate-related Disclosures).
- Why disclosing climate-related risks and opportunities is actually useful to external users of the financial statements.
Scope and objectives of IFRS S2. IFRS S2's objective is for an entity to disclose information about its climate-related risks and opportunities that is useful to the primary users of general purpose financial reports when making resource-provision decisions — specifically, risks and opportunities that could reasonably be expected to affect the entity's prospects. IFRS S2 requires disclosure of both the climate-related risks an entity faces and the climate-related opportunities available to it. These risks split into physical risks (driven by specific climate events or long-term shifts in climate patterns) and transition risks (arising from the broader move toward a lower-carbon economy). Risks and opportunities unlikely to affect the entity's prospects fall outside the Standard's scope entirely.
Usefulness to external users. These disclosures let users understand the governance structure an entity uses to monitor, manage, and oversee climate-related risks and opportunities, along with the strategy adopted to manage them and how they're integrated into the entity's broader risk management processes. Disclosed metrics and targets further let users assess an entity's actual performance against its climate-related goals, whether those targets are self-imposed or set by law or regulation.
We acquired a new subsidiary, Ekramy, during the year, also reporting to a 31 March year end. Due diligence uncovered discrepancies in Ekramy's prior-year financial statements. Setting aside how this affects the consolidated accounts, I want to understand how Ekramy's own individual financial statements for the year ended 31 March 20X5 might need amending.
Two issues were identified:
- Ekramy's inventory at 31 March 20X5 was correctly valued at $1,400,800, but inventory at 31 March 20X4 had been overvalued by $300,000.
- For the year ended 31 March 20X4, no depreciation was charged on Ekramy's buildings, because they had been bundled together with land (correctly assessed as having an indefinite useful life) within a single property, plant and equipment figure.
Both errors are material to Ekramy's financial statements. Please explain:
- How these errors affect Ekramy's 31 March 20X5 financial statements and the comparative figures.
- Why this treatment might differ from how we handled a change in estimated useful life for equipment in Mrehan's accounts last year.
Impact of the errors and comparatives. Under IAS 8 (Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors), a material prior period error must be corrected retrospectively — restating the figures as though the error had never happened, unless doing so is impracticable, in which case a prospective adjustment is made instead. For the inventory error: closing inventory at 31 March 20X4 was overstated by $300,000, meaning cost of sales for that year was understated and profit overstated by the same amount. That overstated closing inventory becomes 20X5's overstated opening inventory, meaning 20X5's cost of sales is now overstated and its profit understated. Since IAS 1 (Presentation of Financial Statements) requires comparative figures, both the 20X4 and 20X5 figures presented within the 20X5 financial statements must be restated, with the correction ultimately adjusting the carried-forward retained earnings at the end of 20X4.
The missing depreciation on the building is likewise a prior period error requiring retrospective correction: all comparative amounts affected must be restated, with the depreciation that should have been charged in the prior year adjusted directly against opening retained earnings for 20X5 — it does not affect the current year's profit or loss at all.
Comparison to the change in useful life. A change in an asset's estimated depreciation pattern is a change in accounting estimate, not an error, since it reflects new information and genuine measurement uncertainty rather than a mistake, and IAS 8 confirms that reasonable estimates don't undermine financial statement reliability. Changes in accounting estimate are applied prospectively only, from the date of change onward, with no restatement of opening balances required — only disclosure of the nature and amount of the change affecting the current year.
📅 Winter 2025
You are the financial controller of Ayman, a large listed entity with several subsidiaries. An assistant preparing the first draft of the consolidated financial statements for the year ended 30 June 20X9 has raised a query about an apparent inconsistency in how two post-year-end events are being treated.
- On 7 July 20X9, a customer owing us $6 million was declared legally insolvent, and we expect to recover essentially nothing. We had known this customer was struggling financially for some time, but believed the difficulties were surmountable until the insolvency declaration. Our draft financial statements already show a $6 million impairment loss on this receivable.
- On 10 July 20X9, a fire caused extensive damage at one of our factories — not serious enough to threaten our going concern status, but expected to cost around $10 million to rectify, with repairs planned imminently. Despite the material amount involved, this cost does not appear anywhere in the draft financial statements.
I don't see how both treatments can be correct under IFRS Accounting Standards — it seems inconsistent to reflect one but not the other. Please explain, ideally before the financial statements are authorised for issue.
IAS 10 (Events after the Reporting Period) governs both situations, since neither set of financial statements has yet been authorised for issue. IAS 10 splits post-year-end events into adjusting and non-adjusting categories.
Adjusting events provide additional evidence about conditions that already existed at the reporting date, and require the financial statements themselves to be adjusted. The customer's formal insolvency declaration on 7 July 20X9 almost certainly reflects a financial position that already existed at 30 June 20X9 — reinforced by the fact we already knew of the customer's difficulties before the year end — so recognising the $6 million impairment loss in the 30 June 20X9 financial statements is entirely correct; the insolvency simply confirms conditions that already existed.
Non-adjusting events relate solely to new conditions arising after the year end, and are disclosed in the notes (where material) rather than reflected in the figures themselves. The factory fire fits this description precisely — the factory was undamaged as at 30 June 20X9 — so no adjustment to the financial statements is required, only disclosure. The sole exception that would override this treatment is a threat to going concern, which does not apply here.
I understand a provision is a liability whose amount or timing is uncertain, but two situations have left me confused.
Two separate legal claims against us began before 30 June 20X9 and remain before the courts.
- Customer A is claiming $2 million in damages over allegedly faulty products. We assess a 60% chance of the claim succeeding, and have recognised a $2 million provision.
- Employee B is claiming $1 million over a workplace accident we believe was primarily caused by their own negligence. We assess only a 25% chance of success, and have recognised no provision.
I would have expected a combined provision of $1.45 million ($2 million × 60% + $1 million × 25%) — how is a flat $2 million provision justified instead?
During the year we began extracting minerals from a new site. Extraction will run for ten years, after which restoring the site to its original condition will cost $20 million. We have no legal obligation to restore this particular site, though we have always chosen to restore previous sites once extraction finished there.
Three questions:
- Why recognise any provision at all, given there's no legal obligation?
- The recognised provision is $12.28 million — correct, and not to be recalculated — based on a 5% discount rate and a 0.614 discount factor. How does that produce this figure?
- Recognising a provision is a credit entry — where does the corresponding debit go?
IAS 37 (Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets) governs all of this. A provision is recognised where a present obligation exists from a past event, an outflow of economic benefit to settle it is probable, and the amount can be reliably estimated.
1. Customer A's claim satisfies all three conditions: the supply occurred before 30 June 20X9, success is probable at 60%, and the likely damages are quantifiable — so a provision is required. Employee B's claim fails the probability test at only 25%, so no provision is appropriate. Where a single obligation like this is being measured, IAS 37's 'best estimate' is normally the single most likely outcome — not a probability-weighted average across multiple possible outcomes (that expected-value approach is reserved for large populations of similar items). The most likely outcome for Customer A is the full $2 million, which is why that figure — not $1.45 million — is the correct provision, shown as a current liability. Employee B's claim, with only a possible (not probable) outflow, is instead a contingent liability: not recognised in the statement of financial position, but disclosed in the notes along with its potential financial impact and likelihood.
2(a). IAS 37 does not require a legal obligation specifically — a constructive obligation, created by an established pattern of past practice that generates a valid expectation the entity will act, is equally sufficient. Our consistent history of restoring previous extraction sites creates exactly this kind of constructive obligation for the new site.
2(b). Where the time value of money is material, IAS 37 requires the provision to be measured at the present value of the expected future expenditure. Here, that means discounting the $20 million payable in ten years' time back to its present value using the 5% rate (via the 0.614 discount factor), producing the $12.28 million figure.
2(c). Since this provision relates to the estimated future cost of restoring the site on which the related asset sits, IAS 16 (Property, Plant and Equipment) requires the corresponding debit to be capitalised as part of that asset's initial cost, rather than being expensed to profit or loss immediately.
Reviewing the consolidation schedule for Ekramy, a recently acquired subsidiary, I noticed a specific adjustment: Ekramy does not capitalise borrowing costs in its own financial statements, even where they relate to constructing a non-current asset, yet our consolidated figures effectively capitalise these costs, matching Ayman's own individual accounting treatment.
Ekramy is a medium-sized, unlisted entity, but both companies operate within the same jurisdiction and are presumably subject to the same financial reporting requirements. Please explain:
- How can Ayman and Ekramy legitimately account for the same type of borrowing costs differently — is one of them simply wrong?
- If Ekramy's treatment is actually acceptable, why do we need to adjust for it on consolidation?
(a) Differing treatments. IFRS Accounting Standards do generally require capitalisation of borrowing costs directly attributable to constructing a qualifying asset — IAS 23 (Borrowing Costs) is explicit on this. However, the IASB has also issued a separate, standalone IFRS for SMEs Standard, available as an alternative to full IFRS for entities without public accountability. Given Ekramy's size and unlisted status, it likely qualifies to use this simplified framework. One key difference between the two frameworks is that the IFRS for SMEs Standard prohibits capitalising borrowing costs under any circumstances, requiring them to be expensed instead — meaning Ekramy's own individual financial statements are entirely correct on this point, just prepared under a different (and equally valid) framework from Ayman's.
(b) Why adjust on consolidation. IFRS 10 (Consolidated Financial Statements) requires uniform accounting policies to be applied across all group entities when preparing consolidated financial statements. Since Ekramy's individual accounts follow the IFRS for SMEs Standard while Ayman's group reporting follows full IFRS Accounting Standards, an adjustment is necessary purely to align Ekramy's figures with the group's full-IFRS policies for consolidation purposes — it does not mean Ekramy's own accounts were prepared incorrectly.
© 2025 – جميع حقوق النشر محفوظة.
تم إعداد هذا الملف كمرجع تعليمي لامتحانات دبلوم IFRS.